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Constitution of India

Practice Test 30

1 / 100

The term of President expires

2 / 100

In which of the following decision the Supreme Court of India heard the matter at midnight?

3 / 100

Right to Constitutional Remedies comes under

4 / 100

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:

List I (Judicial doctrine)
List II (Case)

a. Doctrine of Waiver
1. Kaiser-i-Hind Pvt. Ltd. v. NTC

b. Doctrine of Eclipse
2. Bhikaji v. State of MP

c. Doctrine of Severability
3. Basheshwar Nath v. CIT

d. Doctrine of Repugnancy
4. State of Bombay v. FN Balsara

5 / 100

Which of the following is the mischief rule?

6 / 100

The 90th Constitution amendment of 2003 provides the conditional norms for the non-member of Scheduled Tribes in any autonomous districts of Assam for the:

7 / 100

The writ of Habeas Corpus is issued

8 / 100

Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding Constitutional Amendment Bill? Give correct answer:
1. Prior permission of President is required before introducing the Constitutional Amendment Bill in Parliament
2. Constitutional Amendment Bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament
3. President is bound to give his assent to the Bill if duly passed by both Houses of Parliament and ratified, if required, by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States
4. President may return the Bill to the Houses of reconsideration

9 / 100

Which one of the following is not a function of Attorney General?

10 / 100

What changes were made by the 1st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951?

11 / 100

Of the following under which provision is the superintendence, direction and control of the electoral roll vested in the Election Commission of India?

12 / 100

Under which Article of the Constitution of India, the official language of the Union shall be Hindi?

13 / 100

Reasonable restrictions on freedom to assemble can be imposed

14 / 100

Which article is related to “Equal Justice and free legal aid”?

15 / 100

Can fundamental rights, under Indian Constitution, be waived by a person?

16 / 100

Union of India or any State may sue or be sued according to which Article of the Indian Constitution?

17 / 100

Social, economic and political Justice is

18 / 100

In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court has declared Article 15(5) as Constitutional?

19 / 100

Executive power of the union is vested in

20 / 100

In which case, the Supreme Court has held that fundamental duties must be used as a tool to control state action drifting from Constitutional values?

21 / 100

In which of the following cases did Supreme Court issue directions for playing National Anthem in all cinema halls before start of feature film and making mandatory for all in hall to stand up and show respect to National Anthem?

22 / 100

The President of India has power to

23 / 100

In which case did the Supreme Court observe that “Equality of opportunity admits discrimination with reason and prohibits discrimination without reason”?

24 / 100

Right guaranteed to citizen only is

25 / 100

In which provision of Constitution of India right to free education of children of the age of up to 14 years is stated?

26 / 100

After the Governors (Emoluments, Allowances and Privileges) Amendment Act, 2008 (1 of 2009), the monthly emoluments of Governor of a State is fixed

27 / 100

The term of members of UPSC is ordinarily of

28 / 100

The Panchayati Raj institutions in India are established as per constitutional directions of the

29 / 100

The expression ‘minority’ in Article 30 means any community which is

30 / 100

The term of members of the State Public Service Commission is of

31 / 100

Supreme Court held that judicial review is a basic structure of the Constitution and cannot be amended. In which case it was held?

32 / 100

When can a State law on a subject in the Concurrent List get precedence over a central law on the same subject

33 / 100

The sovereignty of the crown was declared over the company’s territorial acquisition of India. It was done by the charter of

34 / 100

Which Article imposes an obligation on the State under Directive Principles of State Policy to protect and to improve the natural environment

35 / 100

The Comptroller and Auditor-General (CAG) is appointed by . . . . . . . .

36 / 100

The words “Socialist and Secular” were added to the Preamble of the Constitution by

37 / 100

Which is correct statement

38 / 100

Under which of the following Articles the Governor of a State has power to issue an ordinance?

39 / 100

The Vice-president is the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya sabha?

40 / 100

Finance Commission is whether Constitutional body

41 / 100

The first attempt at introducing a representative and popular element in administration was made by

42 / 100

The President may under Article 56(1)(b) be removed from his office by a process of impeachment on the ground of

43 / 100

Consider the following statements
The Indian Constitution is :
1. Unwritten Constitution
2. Written Constitution
3. Largely based on Government of India Act, 1935
Choose the best option-

44 / 100

Article 20(3) forbids to compel a person ‘accused’ to say something from his personal knowledge relating to the charge

45 / 100

For the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, the supreme court may issue a/an

46 / 100

Article 19(1)(a) guarantees freedom of speech and expression to

47 / 100

Which of the following writs can be used against a person believed to be holding a public office, he is not entitled to hold?

48 / 100

Preamble is part of Basic Structure in which case it was held?

49 / 100

42nd amendment Act was adopted by the Parliament in

50 / 100

The three Supreme Court Justices who were superseded in 1973 were:

51 / 100

Article 21A was inserted in the Indian Constitution by:

52 / 100

Only that person can be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court who is a citizen of India and:

53 / 100

The Judges of the Supreme Court take an oath conducted by

54 / 100

The Prime Minister is said to hold the office during the pleasure of the President but in reality he stays in office as long as he enjoys the confidence of:

55 / 100

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:

List I
List II

a. Chief Election Commissioner
1. Elected by Rajya Sabha

b. Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
2. Elected by Members of Lok Sabha

c. Speaker of Lok Sabha
3. Appointed by the President

d. Chairman of Public Accounts Committee
4. Appointed by the Speaker of Lok Sabha

56 / 100

Under the U. S. Constitution residuary legislative powers are given to states. Who according to Indian Constitution exercise residuary legislative powers?

57 / 100

Match the following:

List I
List II

a. Inadvertence
1. Written accusation of crime

b. Incest
2. Exemption from penalty

c. Indemnity
3. Sexual intercourse between Members of a family

d. Indictment
4. Carelessness

58 / 100

In which of the following landmark judgments, right to privacy has been declared as a fundamental right?

59 / 100

In which of the following cases the court has laid down that ‘Right to life’ does not include ‘Right to die’?

60 / 100

President’s resignation shall be given to

61 / 100

Which Amendment Act to the Constitution inserted fundamental duties to the Constitution?

62 / 100

Which article of the constitution of India empower the President to take over the administration of a state on the basis of failure of constitutional machinery

63 / 100

Which of the following is the appropriate qualification for appointment as a judge of a High Court? He/she must

64 / 100

A person whose petition for Habeas Corpus has been refused by the High Court on merits, seeks to move the Supreme Court by an original petition. According to the Constitutional Law of India.

65 / 100

The Chief Election Commissioner of India can be removed from office during his tenure by

66 / 100

What is the effect of 91st Amendment Act, 2003 in the Tenth Schedule?

67 / 100

The Supreme Court enunciated few tests for determining whether an entity is an instrumentality or agency of the State. Which of the following is not one of them?

68 / 100

Under Article 368, Parliament has no power to repeal Fundamental Rights because these are-

69 / 100

Which of the following statements regarding the residuary powers in the Constitution of India are correct
1. Residuary powers have been given to the Union Parliament
2. In the matter of residuary powers the Constitution of India follows the Constitution of Australia
3. The final authority to decide whether a particular matter falls under the residuary power or not is Parliament
4. The Government of India Act, 1935 placed residuary powers in the hands of Governor General

70 / 100

The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court may be enlarged by the Parliament under which Article of the Constitution?

71 / 100

Besides the right to equality of opportunity in general terms, Article 16(2) prohibits discrimination against a citizen on the following grounds except

72 / 100

A permanent Lok Adalat shall take cognizance of any

73 / 100

The Supreme Court of India in National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India (2014) held that transgender persons have the right to identify their gender as . . . . . . . .

74 / 100

“Intercaste marriage is also a fundamental right.” It was laid down by the court in the case of

75 / 100

The subject ‘Protection of wild animals and birds’ is within the Legislative powers of the:

76 / 100

Shreya Singhal v. Union of India dealt with

77 / 100

Right of disabled employee as equal citizens not to be defeated by their superiors and they have no right to defeat their lawful rights.

78 / 100

Which right in India is a constitutional right, but not a Fundamental Right?

79 / 100

The President of India may be removed from his office on which of the following grounds?

80 / 100

Writ of Quo Warranto is related with

81 / 100

UPSC submits its annual report on its work to

82 / 100

By which of the following Amendment Acts of the Constitution, it was provided to the Governor of Karnataka for reservation of a proportion of seats in educational and vocational institutes for those students who belong to Hyderabad-Karnataka region by birth or by domicile

83 / 100

Clause 4A in Article 16 was inserted by the 77th Amendment in response to which one of the following judgments?

84 / 100

Who may appoint ad hoc judges in the Supreme Court?

85 / 100

The legislature of State enacts a law prohibiting the use of loud speaker during night at public places and near educational institutions and religious places. In regard to the above, consider the following statements:
1. Law is valid as it falls under the head “Public Health” provided in List II (7th Schedule) of the Constitution of India.
2. Law is valid as it falls under the head “Public Order” under List II (7th Schedule) of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

86 / 100

The meaning of Supreme Court and High Courts as a Court of record is

87 / 100

In India sovereignty lies with

88 / 100

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:

List I (Doctrine)
List II (Meaning)

a. Doctrine of Pith and Substance
1. You cannot do indirectly what you cannot do directly

b. Doctrine of Incidental Encroachment
2. The part of the Statute which is bad can be served from the rest

c. Doctrine of Severability
3. A law is not invalid even though trenched incidentally to another List

d. Doctrine of Colourable Legislation
4. True nature and character of the legislation

89 / 100

The regional imbalances in resources and financial inequalities can be reduced by:

90 / 100

Which one of the following measures offends Article 302 of the Constitution which says that Parliament can impose restrictions on the freedom of trade and intercourse in Public interest?

91 / 100

For the purpose of creating a new State in India an amendment to the Constitution of India must be passed by

92 / 100

Ex turpi causa non oritur actio’ means

93 / 100

The power to dissolve Rajya Sabha in the Parliament of India is vested with the

94 / 100

The total number of “Fundamental Duties” mentioned in Part IV-A of the Indian Constitution is

95 / 100

Select the right option based on following Assertion-Reason:
Assertion (A): The principal of equality before law means that there should be equality of treatment under equal circumstances.
Reason (R): All persons are not equal by nature, attainment or circumstances.

96 / 100

The doctrine of pleasure has not been mentioned in which Article of the Constitution of India?

97 / 100

The exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the concurrent list or state list is vested in the

98 / 100

The provision of Article 368 of the Constitution of India as it stands today, deals with:

99 / 100

Why is the writ of ‘mandamus’ issued?

100 / 100

The Constitution of J & K came into force on:

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