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Constitution of India

Practice Test 5

1 / 100

The objectives laid down in Article 40 have been fulfilled by enacting the Constitution 73rd and 74th Amendments Act, 1992 known as the

2 / 100

Article 141 of the Indian Constitution provides:

3 / 100

Article . . . . . . . . of the Constitution of India vests the residuary power of legislation with the Parliament.

4 / 100

Which of the following propositions of law is most appropriate?

5 / 100

In which of the following cases it was held that matrimonial rights are not violative of Article 14 and Article 21 of the Constitution?

6 / 100

The Constitution (One Hundred and First) Amendment Act, 2016 was required to be ratified by the Legislature of not less than one half of the State Legislatures because it sought to make changes in:
1. Chapter I of Part XI of the Constitution dealing with legislative relations between the Union and the States.
2. Lists I and II of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution.
3. The Sixth Schedule to the Constitution.
4. Part XIII of the Constitution dealing with trade, commerce and intercourse within India.
Select the correct answer:

7 / 100

The Sarkaria Commission was set up to define

8 / 100

In which case the Supreme Court observed that there is no fundamental right to strike?

9 / 100

Which one of the following is not the provision of the First Amendment Act.

10 / 100

Consider the following statements:
Under Article 243D, not less than one-third seats of the total number of seats in the panchayat to be filled directly be election shall be reserved for women. This one-third reservation for women.
1. Shall include women from SC and ST.
2. Is in a addition to the separate reservation of one-third seats for women belonging to SC and ST.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

11 / 100

Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India permits State to make special provision for children?

12 / 100

Consider the following statements:
Directive Principles of state policy are:
1. Not amendable
2. Not enforceable by any court
3. Fundamental to the governance of the country
Which of the above statement are correct?

13 / 100

A person ‘Y’ is convicted for the offence of kidnapping in 1960 and sentenced to three years of imprisonment. On release from the Tihar Jail, he is apprehended and detained for commission of murder and tried and convicted and sentenced to life imprisonment in 1990. Is this a violation of Article 20 of the Constitution of India?

14 / 100

Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments led to the constitution of Administrative Tribunals in India?

15 / 100

Who summons the meetings of the Parliament

16 / 100

Under Indian Constitution, the Supreme Court may make rules of regulating the practice and procedure of the Court with the approval of

17 / 100

The speaker of the Lok Sabha can resign his office by addressing his resignation to:

18 / 100

X has been illegally detained by the police authorities. His father has been advised to file a writ petition before the High Court. Which Writ should be prayed for in such petition?

19 / 100

The Supreme Court of India to the exclusion of any other Court has jurisdiction in any dispute between

20 / 100

The writ of mandamus can be issued in which of the following cases?
1. To the employer against nonpayment of minimum wages to some employees.
2. To a private degree college affiliated to a university created by a statute to implement the decision of the university which was a condition for its affiliation.
Select the correct answer:

21 / 100

The President of India has the power to veto a Bill passed by the two Houses of the Parliament, but it can be over-ruled, if

22 / 100

Right to education’ was inserted in the Part III of the Constitution by:

23 / 100

Which one of the following statements is correct?
An appeal shall lie to the Supreme Court from any judgment, decree or final order in a civil proceeding of a High Court in the territory of India if the High Court certifies under Article 134A that the case involves

24 / 100

According to The Constitution of India, pre-constitutional laws inconsistent with the Fundamental Rights are . . . . . . . .

25 / 100

The Supreme Court has no original jurisdiction in a dispute between:

26 / 100

In Hoechst Pharmaceuticals Ltd. v. State of Bihar, the State made a law under Entry 54, List II and Center made a law under entry 33 of List III. The laws overlap. Will repugnancy arise in such a case?

27 / 100

Clause (1) of Article 20 of the Constitution is not violated when:

28 / 100

According to Supreme Court of India Jat community of various States is

29 / 100

The expression ‘a Union of States’ used in the Constitution has been taken from the Constitution of

30 / 100

Which schedule of the Constitution mentions the Union List, State List and Concurrent List:

31 / 100

Right to form association under Article 19(3) of the Constitution includes

32 / 100

Which Article provides for procedure in Parliament with respect to Estimates?

33 / 100

“Courts are flooded with large number of PILs, so it is desirable for Courts to filter out frivolous petitions and dismiss them with costs.” In which of the following judgments, it was held?

34 / 100

What do you understand by ratio-decidendi of a case?

35 / 100

In India the Council of state is responsible to

36 / 100

Which of the following case is not related to-the Parliamentary previleges?

37 / 100

The scheme of Morley-Minto constitutional reforms were given effect

38 / 100

In which of the following cases, it was held that the judicial review under Articles 32 and 226 is a basic feature of the Constitution beyond the pale of amendability

39 / 100

Which one of the following is not true about 42nd Amendment Act, 1976?

40 / 100

Article 358 of the Constitution provides that when the proclamation of emergency is issued by the President under Article 352, the freedoms granted under Article 19 are

41 / 100

Reservation of seats in educational Institutions in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is governed by:

42 / 100

Consider the following statements with regard to protection in respect of conviction for offences:
1. In the case of Sampath Kumar v. Enforcement Directorate, Madras, it was held that it is unconstitutional to give a caution to speak the truth.
2. No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
3. No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
4. Criminal law in India can be enacted retrospectively.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

43 / 100

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:

List I (Case)
List II (Subject)

a. Waman Rao v. Union of India
1. Restrictions of freedom of Religion

b. Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
2. Meaning of equality before law

c. Stainslaus v. State of MP
3. Balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles

d. Chiranjit Lal Choudhary v. Union of India
4. Doctrine of Harmonious Constitution

44 / 100

The rights given under clauses (1) and (2) of Article 22 of the Constitution of India are not available to-

45 / 100

The Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India can be removed from his office on the basis of

46 / 100

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:

List I
List II

a. Ex-post facto laws
1. Indirect interference in the field of another Legislature

b. Colourable legislation
2. To maintain balance between provisions of law in case of conflict

c. Harmonious Construction
3. One cannot be punished for an act that was not declared as an offence at the time of doing the act

d. Severability
4. Only such provisions of an Act are void which are inconsistent with the Fundamental Rights

47 / 100

The judge of Supreme Court is appointed-

48 / 100

Which day has been fixed for Supreme Court to be open for General Public?

49 / 100

In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court directed closing down and demolition of shrimp Industries in coastal regulation zone and implement the “Precautionary principle “and “the polluter pays principle” and held them liable for payment of compensation for reversing the ecology and compensate the individual for loss suffered ?

50 / 100

Who is authorized to decide a dispute regarding the disqualification of members of Parliament?

51 / 100

In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court introduced the ‘theory of alternative institutional mechanism’?

52 / 100

Which one of the following is the mandatory minimum requirement for functional federation?

53 / 100

India is Union of States. This means

54 / 100

Assertion (A): In federalism, there is a division of powers between the Centre and the States
Reason (R): The legislation is not invalid merely because it incidentally encroaches on matters which have been assigned to another Legislature

55 / 100

The ‘full faith and credit’ clause in the Constitution deals with . . . . . . . .

56 / 100

Which out of the following is not covered under ‘State’ of Article 12 of the Constitution?

57 / 100

The emergency provisions of the Constitution of India have been borrowed from

58 / 100

The fundamental right can never be amended as it beyond the purview of the parliament’, such ruling was given in

59 / 100

In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that ‘the audi alteram pariem rule, in essence enforces the equality clause in Article 14 and it is applicable not only to quasi-judicial bodies but also to administrative order adversely affecting the party in question?’

60 / 100

Consider the following statements:
Article 286 of the Constitution of India provided that no law of a State shall impose, or authorize the imposition of a tax on the sale or purchase of goods where such sale or purchase:
1. Takes place even within the territory of the State.
2. Takes place in the course of the import of the goods into, or export of the goods out of, the territory of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

61 / 100

The Panchayats are authorised

62 / 100

The Constitution of India establishes parliamentary from of Government, and the essence of this form of government is its responsibility to the:

63 / 100

Article 15(3) of the Constitution of India empowers the State to make special provisions for:

64 / 100

The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court of India to adjudicate disputes between the Centre and the States through:

65 / 100

Suppose, the Central Government decides to issue licences to private parties. Which one of the following would be a valid procedure to do so?

66 / 100

The Fundamental Rights in England are given to citizens by

67 / 100

When the Court declares certain provisions of any Act invalid, it does not affect the validity of the Act, it remains as it is. It is . . . . . . . .

68 / 100

Equality before law and Equal protection of law have been modelled on the Constitution of

69 / 100

Which Article of the Constitution of India states that the provisions of Part IV of the Constitution of India would not be enforceable by any court?

70 / 100

Which is incorrect statement. The original jurisdiction of Supreme Court is

71 / 100

Under what Article of constitution President of India can obtain the views of the Supreme Court on a particular Bill

72 / 100

The total suspension of Article 14 of the constitution can be made under which article ?

73 / 100

Who amongst the following decides about the disqualification of the Members of Parliament?

74 / 100

Ban on smoking in public place is a violation of which one of following articles of the constitution?

75 / 100

A law restricting trade or commerce made by a State Legislature:

76 / 100

Article 39A of the Constitution of India deals with

77 / 100

Rajya Sabha has a term of

78 / 100

Which of the following presumptions/reasons best justify the validity of laws on hate speech?
1. Equality means uniformity.
2. Equality and liberty may sometimes become contradictory values.
3. Law should always prioritize equality over liberty.
4. Equality and liberty must be harmoniously construed.
Choose the correct option from below:

79 / 100

Which of the following is not an official language of India according to the eighth schedule of the Constitution?

80 / 100

In which year and by what amendment Article 21A was inserted?

81 / 100

The Constituent Assembly of India took all decisions by:

82 / 100

After the new provision made by the Vice-President Pension (Amendment) Act in December 2008 the pension of Vice-President of India is fixed

83 / 100

Article 19(1)(c) of the Constitution of India guarantees freedom:

84 / 100

What is imperative to show the requisite respect to the National Anthem?

85 / 100

Which of the following is not included in the State List in the Constitution of India

86 / 100

According to which Article of the Constitution of India, the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all Courts within the territory of India?

87 / 100

The power of judicial review in India is enjoyed by

88 / 100

The power to legislate with respect to collection of rent includes the power to legislate with respect to remission of rent, is based on the theory of:

89 / 100

Article 50 of the Constitution deals with:

90 / 100

Total strength of Lok Sabha members is

91 / 100

Subjects in the . . . . . . . . schedule is beyond the scope of Judicial Review

92 / 100

Article 213 empowers the Governor to promulgate ordinances

93 / 100

In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court established the relationship between Articles 14, 19 and 21 of the Constitution?

94 / 100

Which constitutional amendment accorded primacy to the Directive Principles of State Policy over Fundamental Rights?

95 / 100

The number of seats in Vidhan Sabha is

96 / 100

The law made by Parliament

97 / 100

Doctrine of ‘Pith and substance’ is

98 / 100

Municipalities have become constitutional functionaries by insertion of Article:

99 / 100

What is the meaning of ‘lex loci’

100 / 100

The enforcement of Directive Principles of State Policy primarily depends on:

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