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Indian Evidence Act

Practice Test 1

1 / 100

A, a sculptor, agrees to sell to B, “all my mods.” A has both models and modelling tools. Applying Section 98, Indian Evidence Act:

2 / 100

Under Indian Evidence Act evidence may be given in respect of

3 / 100

Which of the following statements is/are not true?
1. An accomplice is a competent witness against an accused person.
2. Conviction on the testimony of an accomplice is legal.
3. Conviction on the testimony of an accomplice is legal only if it is corroborated.
Select the correct answer:

4 / 100

Provisions have been made under certain Sections of the Indian Evidence Act regarding relevancy of certain facts. Match the entries of List-I and List-II below and write the correct answer:

List I (Facts)
List II (Sections)

a. Opinion of Handwriting Expert
1. 22

b. State of relevant fact by person who is dead or cannot be found
2. 47

c. Previous good character in criminal cases
3. 32

d. Oral admissions as to contents of documents
4. 53

5 / 100

A super imposed photograph of the deceased over the skeleton of a human body to prove that the skeleton was of the deceased is relevant under-

6 / 100

Statement of an injured person is recorded as dying declaration, however he survives. His Statement is admissible under which section of the Evidence Act?

7 / 100

From presumption an inference may be drawn which may be:

8 / 100

Contents of a document under section 59 of Evidence Act

9 / 100

Which one among the following is not a primary Evidence?

10 / 100

The history sheet of an accused person, kept in the police station is not a man’s character, as it is based on:

11 / 100

Under Section 57(1) of the Evidence Act, the court shall take judicial notice of-

12 / 100

Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act admissibility of Evidence shall be decided by the Judge?

13 / 100

For presumption under section 107 of Evidence Act, the person is to be shown to be alive

14 / 100

The question is, whether ‘A’ was ravished and thereafter murdered?
The fact that, without making a complaint, she said that she had been ravished

15 / 100

A’ says to ‘B’ that he has finished his wife forever. Under Indian Evidence Act this statement amounts to

16 / 100

Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with the burden of proving fact to be proved to make evidence admissible?

17 / 100

In Criminal Cases, previous good character of the accused is

18 / 100

B’ has been robbed and murdered. Soon after, the stolen goods are found with ‘A’. In these circumstances, what may/may not be presumed?

19 / 100

Admissions and confessions are-
1. Exception to the hearsay evidence
2. Part of hearsay evidence
3. Form relevant evidence
4. Admitted in evidence on proof
Select the correct answer:

20 / 100

A court cannot compel the parties to undergo a blood test, to establish the legitimacy of the child because it would amount to declaring the mother as unchaste and child as illegitimate. This view was laid down in which one of the following cases?

21 / 100

A dying declaration is relevant

22 / 100

Primary evidence means and includes:

23 / 100

Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with character of a person as affecting damages?

24 / 100

Immediately before dying, signs and gestures made by a victim, whose throat was cut by the accused, in answer to questions, indicating the person who had wounded him, are admissible under Section-

25 / 100

Unless non-access is proved, the presumption as to legitimacy of any child bom during the continuance of a valid marriage between his mother and any man is-

26 / 100

An accomplice is

27 / 100

A is accused of a crime. Applying Section 8, Indian Evidence Act, which of the following facts can be relevant?

28 / 100

Which one of the following is not the secondary evidence?

29 / 100

Which of the following section of Indian Evidence is amended by the criminal law amendment act 2013

30 / 100

An accused in Police custody confesses to a Police Officer, which results in discovery of the knife. The evidence admissible under

31 / 100

The question between ‘A’ and ‘B’ is, whether a certain deed is or is not forged. ‘A’ affirms that it is genuine, ‘B’ that it is forged

32 / 100

Secondary evidence of the contents of a document is not admissible when

33 / 100

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding dumb witnesses?

34 / 100

Burden of proof is lightened by

35 / 100

A’ (a client) says to ‘B’ (an attorney), ‘I wish to obtain possession of property by use of forged deed on which I request you to sue’.
According to Section 126 of the Evidence Act, what is the legal position of this communication?

36 / 100

“Evidence obtained by undesirable means is admissible if it is otherwise relevant.” The court said so in

37 / 100

Opinion of experts is relevant under-

38 / 100

Which of the following is not relevant under Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act?

39 / 100

The question is, whether. A was ravished. The fact that without making a complaint, she said that she had been ravished:

40 / 100

Which section of the Indian Evidence Act was amended by the Criminal law (Amendment) Act, 2005?

41 / 100

Which one among the following is common in the provisions of Section 123, Section 126 and Section 127 of the Indian Evidence Act?

42 / 100

When court is to form an opinion regarding electronic signature then opinion of certifying officer who issued electronic signature is

43 / 100

Section 90 of the Indian Evidence Act creates presumption as to documents that are . . . . . . . . . years old.

44 / 100

In which of the following cases did the court held that a party who produces witnesses in court produces them as witnesses of truth; and simply because portions of their statements are not favourable to the party producing them, they cannot be condemned as biased witnesses?

45 / 100

Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with questions lawful in cross-examination?

46 / 100

What does Section 113-B of Evidence Act deal with?

47 / 100

Under which one of the following Section of the Indian Evidence Act, a witness under examination gets the rights to refresh his memory ?

48 / 100

Which of the following is incorrect under the Evidence Act?

49 / 100

The object of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 as set out in the preamble is:

50 / 100

Privilege in respect of judges and magistrates under section 121 of Evidence Act relates to

51 / 100

A puts jewels of her into a box belonging to B with the intention that the circumstances may cause B to be convicted of theft. What offence has been committed?

52 / 100

During re-examination of witness under Indian Evidence Act, 1872

53 / 100

Oral evidenceis not admissible to clarify the language used in a document when the language is

54 / 100

Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the Rule of “Res gestae” is applicable in

55 / 100

In case a child is born within 280 days of dissolution of marriage, the mother remaining unmarried the presumption of legitimacy of child under section 112 of Evidence Act arises:

56 / 100

Under which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act opinion as to digital signature is relevant?

57 / 100

Several classes of facts, which are connected with the transaction(s) in a particular mode, are relevant

58 / 100

Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act Provides that the improper admission or rejection of evidence shall not be ground of itself for a new trial?

59 / 100

“Fact” under Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act means:

60 / 100

Documents in respect of which privilege has been provided under Section 123 of the Indian Evidence Act

61 / 100

A carbon copy of the injury report prepared by a Doctor by one uniform process by which the original was prepared may be admitted as

62 / 100

The examination, after the cross-examination of a witness by the party who has called him, is called-

63 / 100

When can leading questions be asked?

64 / 100

Identification proceedings’ are provided under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act?

65 / 100

Which of the following is correctly matched according to Indian Evidence Act, 1872

66 / 100

Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 relevancy of facts forming part of the same transaction has been discussed in

67 / 100

Falsus in uno, falsus in omni bus is

68 / 100

A agrees, in writing, to sell a horse to B for “Rs. 1000 or Rs. 1500”.

69 / 100

Section 114-A of the Indian Evidence Act is related to

70 / 100

If no attesting witness can be found it must be proved that:

71 / 100

Relevancy of expert evidence for the purpose of Evidence Act is contained in

72 / 100

The principle of estoppel is given under which of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act?

73 / 100

The question before the court is whether document ‘X’ is the will of ‘A’. Which of the following is relevant:

74 / 100

Cross-examination of a witness:

75 / 100

The circumstances under which the secondary evidence is admissible have been enumerated in

76 / 100

Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with presumption as to certified copies of foreign judicial records?

77 / 100

Which statements are Admission?

78 / 100

Several sets of facts, which are connected with the same transaction(s) in a particular mode, are relevant under

79 / 100

In which of the following secondary evidence relating to a document cannot be given?

80 / 100

According to Section 141 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive, is called a

81 / 100

Which of the following evidence is generally not admissible in court of law?

82 / 100

Presumption

83 / 100

For the Court to make the presumption as mentioned in Section 90 of the Evidence Act about the document produced before it, such document must be purported or proved to be . . . . . . . . years old.

84 / 100

Facts which are inconsistent with any fact in issue are relevant’ is basis of:

85 / 100

“Relationship is not a factor to affect credibility of a witness” held by the Supreme Court in

86 / 100

Due execution and authentication of a power of attorney shall be presumed under Section 85 of Evidence Act when executed before and authenticated by:

87 / 100

Estoppel can be:

88 / 100

Oral admissions as to contents of electronic records are relevant when the genuineness of the:

89 / 100

Section 106 of Evidence Act is applicable

90 / 100

What is conclusive proof of legitimacy under the law of Evidence?

91 / 100

Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which among the following does not come under the category of privileged communications?

92 / 100

Whether following document are public documents.

93 / 100

Which one of the following is primary evidence?

94 / 100

Section 31 of the Indian Evidence Act refers to:

95 / 100

In criminal cases under Section 54, Indian Evidence Act to prove that the defendant committed the crime charged, evidence may not be given that he:

96 / 100

In criminal proceedings the burden of proof lies:

97 / 100

Who is prevented from being testified under section 118 of Indian Evidence Act

98 / 100

Under the Provisions of the Indian Evidence Act

99 / 100

Under Section 14 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which of the following facts becomes relevant, namely

100 / 100

Indian Evidence Act consists of

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