/100

Constitution of India

Practice Test 16

1 / 100

The fundamental right available only to a citizen of India is the right under Article

2 / 100

Article 40 of the Constitution of India deals with

3 / 100

Which one among the following statements is correct?

4 / 100

In India a person can be a member of the Council of Ministers without being a Member of Parliament for a maximum period

5 / 100

It is mandatory for the Governor to reserve a Bill for the considerations by the President of India if such a Bill affects

6 / 100

In a landmark judgment, the Supreme Court ruled that laws in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution

7 / 100

The Supreme Court of India enunciated the doctrine of ‘basic structure of the Constitution’ in

8 / 100

Prorogation of the House means

9 / 100

A member of Parliament can claim immunity:

10 / 100

In which one of the following cases is a civil servant, before dismissal, entitled to be heard?

11 / 100

The conclusive part of Article 31C, i.e. “and no law containing a declaration that it is for giving effect to such policy shall be called in question in any court on the ground that it does not give effect to such policy” was struck down by the Supreme Court in the case of.

12 / 100

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:

List I
List II

a. Waiver of Fundamental Rights
1. Prafulla Kumar v. Bank of Khulna

b. Territorial nexus
2. Golaknath v. State of Punjab

c. Harmonious Construction
3. Basheshar Nath v. Commissioner of Income Tax

d. Prospective Overruling
4. Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan

13 / 100

Judge of the High Court can be removed from the office during his tenure by

14 / 100

The procedure for amending the Constitution of India is

15 / 100

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:

List I (Decision)
List II (Judicial Principle)

a. Supreme Court Advocates on Records Association v. Union of India
1. Parliamentary privileges

b. In Re Vinay Chandra Mishra
2. “Curative Petition”

c. In Re Keshav Singh
3. Contempt Power

d. Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra
4. Appointment and transfer of Judges of the Supreme Court and High Court

16 / 100

The power of judicial review means:

17 / 100

Restriction of writ jurisdiction of High Court under Article 226 is possible through:

18 / 100

Prevention of cruelty to animals comes under which of the following List in the Constitution

19 / 100

In which year, two two additional Commissioners were appointed for the first time in Election Commission of India?

20 / 100

Which Article of the U. N. Charter charges that U. N. to promote “Universal respect for, and observance of, human rights and fundamental freedoms for all without distinction as to sex, race, language or religion”?

21 / 100

The case in which the Supreme Court has issued a writ of continuing mandamus is:

22 / 100

Who amongst the following can be removed from his office by the President without an impeachment motion having been passed by the Parliament?

23 / 100

In which case it was held that in regard to application of right and in particular fundamental right cannot be thwarted only by reason of a concession made by a counsel

24 / 100

93rd amendment in the Constitution of India deals with:

25 / 100

Trafficking in Human Being is declared prohibited by which article of Indian Constitution?

26 / 100

The power to prorogue the House is vested in

27 / 100

Which Article of the Indian Constitution states that ‘the state shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code, throughout the territory of India?’

28 / 100

Which of the following writs literally means “We command”?

29 / 100

The Eight Schedule of the Constitution of India provides for

30 / 100

What is the retirement age (in years) of a High Court Judge?

31 / 100

The transfer of Judges from one High Court to another High Court may be made by the

32 / 100

If the Prime Minister is a member of the Rajya Sabha?

33 / 100

Civil proceedings against the President for any act done or purported to be done by him in his personal capacity before he entered in the office of President

34 / 100

Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?

35 / 100

Which one of the following rights is not guaranteed in Article 22(1) and (2) of the Constitution of India?

36 / 100

Article 13(2)

37 / 100

Upholding and protecting the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India is

38 / 100

The principle of Law of Taxation that “No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law”. It is contained under

39 / 100

“India that is Bharat shall be a union of states”. From which Constitution was adopted the words “union of states”?

40 / 100

A member of the State Public Service Commission can be removed only by
1. Governor on the ground of mis-behaviour
2. President on the ground of mis-behaviour
3. Governor when such member becomes insolvent

41 / 100

Clause (4) of Article 13 of the Indian Constitution which was inserted by the 24th Amendment Act, 1971, states that a Constitution Amendment Act, passed according to Article 368 of the Indian Constitution is a law within the meaning of Article 13 and would, accordingly be void if it contravenes a fundamental right. This amendment was declared void in which of the following cases?

42 / 100

A pamphlet invokes the reader to join a total and violent struggle to bring about a revolution. The author is prosecuted for sedition under Section 124A of IPC. The Penal provision and proceeding there under are challenged by the author as violative of his fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression. Is the challenge legally tenable?

43 / 100

Which one of the following rights cannot be inferred from Article 21 of the Constitution?

44 / 100

Sentence hearing after conviction of an accused is

45 / 100

Consider the following statements about the residuary powers of the legislations:
1. The Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in List II or List III.
2. State Legislatures have exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter enumerated in List-II.
3. The Parliament as well as State Legislatures have exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in List II or List III.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

46 / 100

By which Amendment of the Constitution, the right to property was altered as legal right?

47 / 100

The properties of a State Government are acquired by the Central Government in accordance with the provisions of an Act passed by Parliament. The State challenges the Central Government’s action. Which one of the following is the best legal position?

48 / 100

In which recent case it was held that “State” within the meaning of Article 12 of the Constitution of India should have placed full facts before the High Court

49 / 100

If the President of India is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charge shall be preferred by:

50 / 100

In which of the following cases it was held that the preamble to the Constitution is an integral and operative part of the constitution?

51 / 100

In which of the following states, the Legislative Council has been abolished?

52 / 100

Who holds the purse holds the power’ who said this

53 / 100

“Right to Education” as Fundamental Right was added in the Constitution by which of the following Constitutional Amendment?

54 / 100

The chairman of the National Development Council is the

55 / 100

Which Article of the Constitution gives Governor power to grant pardon in certain cases?

56 / 100

By which Amendment Act to the Constitution of India, the provision with regard to compulsory acquisition of property was omitted?

57 / 100

A High Court Judge resigns from service. An issue arises before the Court with regard to the date when he demitted office. The date would be:

58 / 100

The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on:

59 / 100

The Supreme Court, while exercising power under Article 136 of the Constitution of India:

60 / 100

11th Schedule of the Constitution of India contains-

61 / 100

From which country the principles of Fundamental Duties have been derived

62 / 100

Who is the chairman of Rajya Sabha?

63 / 100

Indian Constitutional recognises Minorities on the basis of

64 / 100

How many members are there in the Public Accounts Committee?

65 / 100

In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court made it mandatory for candidates contesting elections to the legislatures and their spouses to declare their source of income at the time of filing nominations?

66 / 100

Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and select the answer:
Assertion (A): No person is eligible for appointment as Governor unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of Thirty Five Years.
Reason (R): He is debarred from holding any other office of profit during the term of office.

67 / 100

The ground “Internal Disturbance” in Article 352 of the Constitution of India for proclamation of emergency was removed by

68 / 100

Certain provisions of the Constitution can be amended by simple majority vote in Parliament at the instance of the Union which is incorrect statement

69 / 100

Which provision of the Constitution gives the State authority to provide for reservation of appointments or posts in the services under the State in favour of any backward class of citizens which, in the opinion of the State, is not adequately represented in the services under the State?

70 / 100

Which article provides that employment of children in hazardous factory is prohibited?

71 / 100

The composition of Parliament consists of:

72 / 100

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:

List I (Doctrines)
List II (Cases)

a. Pith and substance
1. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

b. Basic structure of the Constitution
2. Bhikaji Narain v. State of Madhya Pradesh

c. Doctrine of Eclipse
3. State of Rajasthan v. G. Chawla

d. Rule of Severability
4. State of Bombay v. F. N. Balsara

73 / 100

In which case has the Supreme Court of India decided that the reservation should be less than 50%?

74 / 100

The President of India has power to declare emergency under Article 352 on which of the following grounds?
1. War
2. Internal disturbance
3. External aggression
4. Armed rebellions
Select the correct answer:

75 / 100

For a person to be eligible for election as President of India, one of the qualifications required is that he is qualified for election as a member of:

76 / 100

Which article of the Constitution puts a Fundamental Duty on the citizens to protect and improve national environment?

77 / 100

A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by both Houses of Parliament

78 / 100

Who among the following is appointed as the Returning Officer in President Elections?

79 / 100

Assertion (A): The entries in the three legislative lists are not always set out with scientific precision and definition.
Reason (R): The entries are not power but are only fields of legislation.

80 / 100

Right to acquire and hold property is

81 / 100

The appropriate writ issued by Supreme Court to quash the appointment of a person to a public office is

82 / 100

Which Article of the Constitution puts a duty on every citizen of India to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of the woman?

83 / 100

Judicial Review of proclamation under Article 356 would lie on anyone of the following grounds

84 / 100

Which one of the following statements is correct?
Emergency shall:

85 / 100

Which of the following has been defined in the Constitution of India?

86 / 100

A member of a State Assembly can be disqualified by the

87 / 100

In which case the Supreme Court of India held that polygraph test Conducted under compulsion is violative of Article 20(3) of the Constitution?

88 / 100

Keshav Singh’s case is related to

89 / 100

Article 33 empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate by law Fundamental Rights in the application to-

90 / 100

Concurrent list was adopted from

91 / 100

The Ex-officio Chairman of the Council of State is?

92 / 100

Assertion (A): Courts cannot review the question as to what “aid and advice” is given by the Council of Ministers to the President.
Reason (R): The question of ‘aid and advice’ by the Council of Ministers is a “non justiciable issue”.

93 / 100

Unless approved by the resolution of both Houses of Parliament, the proclamation of President rule in State shall cease to operate after expiration of . . . . . . . .

94 / 100

Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to appointment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India?

95 / 100

Can the High Court while examining the constitutional validity of a Statue declare it ultra vires prospectively?

96 / 100

In Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, (2005) 5 SCC 1, the Supreme Court:

97 / 100

A proclamation under Article 356 may be issued by the President

98 / 100

Which one of the following languages was not included by the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003?

99 / 100

Which of the following is not true regarding the payment of the emoluments of the President?

100 / 100

In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court held that, ‘No election can bechallenged on the ground of defect in electoral rolls’?

Thank you for completing your free MCQ practice test! To stay updated on upcoming tests, please provide your name and email below.

Your score is

0%

Average score : 15%

Leaderboard

Pos.NameDurationPoints
There is no data yet

Best score

You must log in to see your results.

Progress

You must log in to see your results.

Leave a Comment

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

Scroll to Top