/100

Constitution of India

Practice Test 18

1 / 100

In which of the following cases it is held by Supreme Court that Article 21 is controlled by Article 19

2 / 100

In which recent judgment it was held that doctrine of “res extra commercium” cannot be extended to prohibit employment of women in Hotels and Bars serving liquor:

3 / 100

A contract for construction of an international airport was executed between ‘X’ and the Central Government. On behalf of ‘X’, the contract is signed by its Managing Director. In so far as the Central Government is concerned, the contract is made in the name of the Secretary, Ministry of Civil Aviation. Central Government wishes to take the defence that the contract is not binding on it. Which Article of the Constitution of India should it take recourse to?

4 / 100

Which one of the following proposition is correct description of the powers of the President of India under Article 356 of the Constitution?

5 / 100

Article 14 of Indian Constitution does not prohibit

6 / 100

While imposing compulsory service for public purposes, the State shall not make any discrimination on grounds only of:

7 / 100

Article 243ZE of the Constitution of India provides for . . . . . . .

8 / 100

In which of the contingencies Articles 31A(a) of Indian-Constitution applies.

9 / 100

The President’s rule in a state can be continued at a stretch for a maximum period of

10 / 100

Xth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with

11 / 100

Right to Education is a fundamental right emanating from right to:

12 / 100

The ratification by state legislatures is not required for a constitutional amendment bill passed by Parliament in respect of an amendment of

13 / 100

The High Court has the power to issue writ under article

14 / 100

By which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts the voting age was reduced from 21 years to 18 years?

15 / 100

Who is responsible for the administration of Union Territories?

16 / 100

Under which article of constitution of India provision relating to doctrine of eclipse are provided?

17 / 100

In the Rajya Sabha, the President can appoint how many representatives

18 / 100

The limit imposed on ‘investigatory journalism’ primarily flows from:
1. The right to reputation
2. The right to privacy
3. The law of Contempt of Court

19 / 100

Under which one of the following cases the traditional rule of filing petition only by the person aggrieved except in the case of habeas corpus is relaxed

20 / 100

Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution of India does not deal with

21 / 100

Give correct response to:

22 / 100

The Chairman and Members of the Union Public Service Commission are appointed by:

23 / 100

The Supreme Court of India

24 / 100

In the Constitution of India, provision relating to the formation of new States can be amended by

25 / 100

Which Article is related to Equality before law?

26 / 100

Which article starts with “Subject to public order, morality & health”.

27 / 100

The expression in Article 14 “equality before law and equal protection of law” means

28 / 100

It has been held by the Supreme Court that appointment of the candidates in excess of the notified vacancies is a denial and deprivation of the fundamental rights under article 14 read with article 16 (1) of the constitution in:

29 / 100

The corruption charges against the civil servants of Central Government are probed by the:

30 / 100

Study the following statements and pick up the correct code:
Statement I: The power of High Court to issue writs under Article 226 is wider than the power of Supreme Court under Article 32.
Statement II: The Supreme Court has the power to issue writs only for violation of fundamental rights whereas the power of High Court under Article 226 can be invoked for the enforcement of fundamental rights as well as legal rights.

31 / 100

The writ of mandamus would be issued when there is failure to:

32 / 100

The supreme Court is established under following article:

33 / 100

The Supreme Court of India has been established under Article:

34 / 100

The Preamble is useful in Constitutional interpretation because it:

35 / 100

The Lok Sabha Secretariat comes under the direct supervision of the

36 / 100

The ‘harm principle’ by J. S. Mill has been discussed in which of the following landmark judgments on constitutional question?

37 / 100

The VIII Schedule of the Constitution of India does not include which one of the following languages?

38 / 100

The Directive Principle of State Policy aim at:

39 / 100

What is the maximum gap permissible between two Sessions of the Parliament?

40 / 100

Enforcement of which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India cannot be suspended even during the proclamation of emergency?

41 / 100

Which Constitution (Amendment) Act brought about modifications to Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy as well as Fundamental Duties?

42 / 100

Which Amendment Act of the Constitution, amended Article 71 to clarify that the election of the President or the Vice-President cannot be challenged on the ground of the existence of any vacancy for whatever reason in the appropriate electoral college.

43 / 100

Which case is popularly known as “Cash for Question” case?

44 / 100

Due to the outcome of this case slum dwellers were benefitted

45 / 100

Which decision of the Supreme Court has dealt with the right of a prisoner to a speedy trial and legal aid?

46 / 100

Who have a right to speak or otherwise take part in the proceedings of either House in any joint sitting of the Parliament without voting right

47 / 100

Choose the case law which is not connected with Protection of Human Rights

48 / 100

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:

List I
List II

a. Independence of Judiciary
1. Administrative adjudication

b. Executive Legislation
2. Parliamentary form of government

c. Quasi-judicial Function
3. Appointment and transfer of Judges

d. Collective Responsibility
4. Ordinance

49 / 100

Who has the power to prorogue the either House of the State Legislature?

50 / 100

According to Article 23, the following are prohibited

51 / 100

Article 20(2) of the Constitution of India provides for protection against:

52 / 100

According to the Constitution 86th amendment of 2002 it is the fundamental duties of a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child:

53 / 100

Which of following decides the dispute of election of the president?

54 / 100

Consider the following statements:
1. Parliament shall, while a proclamation of Emergency is in operation, have the power to make laws of the whole or any part of territory of India with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the list
2. Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List
3. Parliament has power to make any law for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement, or convention with any other country
4. Parliament has power to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List in the national interest subject to the resolution passed by the Council of States by two-thirds majority
Which of these statements are correct?

55 / 100

Disputes between States in India come to the Supreme Court under-

56 / 100

Which of the following statements is incorrect

57 / 100

How much time it took for Constituent Assembly to finalize the constitution?

58 / 100

Under Article 141 if “High Court distinguishing judgment of Apex Court on ground that there was no elaborate discussion and no reason is discernible which is clearly violative of judicial discipline held in

59 / 100

How many parliaments are there in the Inter Parliamentary Union at present?

60 / 100

Public Undertaking Committee is a

61 / 100

Is it binding on the part of a state to make SC/ST reservation in matter of promotion?

62 / 100

The 42nd Amendment raised the term of Lok Sabha to

63 / 100

Which of the following is correct in relation to the functioning of the institution of Lokayukta in Indian States?

64 / 100

Match the following:
1. Territorial nexus : States are bound under the Centre’s dominion
2. Pith and Substance : Central and State Acts are distinguished according to their object
3. Colourable Legislation : Everybody is punished for contempt
4. Repugnancy : Where new Acts are enforced, the repealing Acts have no value

65 / 100

Match the following:

List I
List II

a. A. D. M. Jabalpur v. Shukla
1. Bearer Bonds case

b. M. S. M. Sharma v. S. K. Sinha
2. Habeas Corpus case

c. R. C. Cooper v. UOI
3. Bank Nationalisation case

d. R. K. Garg v. UOI
4. Searchlight case

66 / 100

What do you mean by delegatus non protest delegare?

67 / 100

Which among the following is not a fundamental right-
1. Right to equality
2. Right to freedom of religion
3. Right to constitutional remedies
4. Equal justice and free legal aid

68 / 100

The Constitution of India incorporates the ‘Rule of Law’ in:

69 / 100

In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court held that an amendment of the Constitution under Article 368 was ‘law’ within the meaning of Article 13 of the Constitution of India

70 / 100

How many members can be nominated to the State Legislative Council by the Governor?

71 / 100

The Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court was adopted from the Constitution of

72 / 100

A law made by Parliament having extraterritorial operation shall:

73 / 100

Which Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with the provisions as to disqualification on ground of defection?

74 / 100

In which of the following articles of the Constitution of India the ‘Doctrine of Pleasure’ is provided?

75 / 100

Article 22 of the Constitution has been called as a ‘ugly provision of the Constitution’ by the Supreme Court in the case of

76 / 100

Which of the following questions is not relevant in determining the existence of a constitutional convention?

77 / 100

In relation to affiliation of educational institutions with a University, the Supreme Court has pointed out that:

78 / 100

How many languages are present in the Eighth-Schedule?

79 / 100

Untouchability Offence Act 1955 was renamed as “The Protection of Civil Rights Act 1955” in

80 / 100

The confirmation of an additional judge of a High Court as a permanent judge of that court without consultation with the ‘collegium’ of judges is:

81 / 100

Directive Principles of State Policy are the conscience of the Constitution which embody the social philosophy of the Constitution’ was described by

82 / 100

Which one of the following is not covered under Article 20 of the Constitution of India?

83 / 100

The Doctrine of Double Jeopardy is enshrined under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

84 / 100

Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is dealt under

85 / 100

Article 359A was inserted inter alia amending Article 352 in its application to the State of Punjab and for the purposes of invoking Article 352, the concept of “internal disturbance” was again introduced by

86 / 100

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:

List I
List II

a. S. R. Chaudhari’s Case
1. Electors have fundamental right to know antecedents of contesting candidates

b. Murlai Deora’s Case
2. .Right to food is a fundamental right under Article 21

c. Association for Democratic Reforms case
3. Ban on smoking at public places

d. PUCL case
4. Non-member cannot be re-appointed as minister if he fails to get elected after six months

87 / 100

On receipt of the report from the Governor of a State that the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution the President of India under Article 356

88 / 100

According to Article 22(3), fundamental rights guaranteed to arrested persons in Article 22(1) and (2) do not apply to

89 / 100

The 39th Constitutional Amendment laid that election of any person to the Lok Sabha holding the office of Prime Minister cannot be challenged before a Court of Law, but only before an authority established by the Parliament. This was declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in

90 / 100

According to Articles 25 and 26, what constitutes an essential part of religion or religious practice is to be decided by the court on the basis of

91 / 100

Assertion (A): The power of amendment under Article 368 does not include the power to alter the basic structure of the Constitution.
Reason (R): The right to equality does not form part of basic structure of the Constitution.

92 / 100

Which Constitutional Amendment Act, provided reservation in admissions in private unaided educational institutions for students belonging to scheduled castes/tribes and other backward classes?

93 / 100

The provision as to disqualification on ground of defection which was also amended by the Constitution 91st amendment of 2003 is provided in:

94 / 100

Consider the following statements:
1. The President of India may be removed from his office before expiry of his term for violation of the Constitution.
2. The impeachment charge against the President may be preferred by either House of the Parliament.
3. For the resolution of impeachment, votes of two-third of the Members of the House present and voting are required. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

95 / 100

At present the Rajya Sabha consists of . . . . . . . . Members

96 / 100

Under which list in the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India, does the subject ‘banking’ occur?

97 / 100

As per President’s Emoluments and Pension (Amendment) Act, 2008 (28 of 2008) the present salary of President of India per month

98 / 100

The President has been authorized by Article 143 to refer to the Supreme Court a question of law or fact, which in his opinion is of such nature and of such public importance that it is expedient to obtain its opinion upon it. Such opinions of the Supreme court is binding on:

99 / 100

Who among the following can remove a Judge of High Court from his office?

100 / 100

Which among the following has the power to extend functions of the State Public Service Commission?

Thank you for completing your free MCQ practice test! To stay updated on upcoming tests, please provide your name and email below.

Your score is

0%

Average score : 11%

Leaderboard

Pos.NameDurationPoints
There is no data yet

Best score

You must log in to see your results.

Progress

You must log in to see your results.

Leave a Comment

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

Scroll to Top