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Constitution of India

Practice Test 22

1 / 100

Constitution of India-In which of the following cases the Supreme Court has held that the laws in the 9th Schedule are also subject to judicial review?

2 / 100

Which of the following measures offends Article 302 of the Constitution, which says that Parliament can impose restrictions on freedom of trade and intercourse in public interest

3 / 100

Who does not have the right to vote in the election of President of India?

4 / 100

Which Article of the Constitution says that the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India?

5 / 100

Which among the following provisions of the Constitution of India maintains that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India ‘to safeguard public property and to abjure violence’?

6 / 100

Which among the following is the basis of representation in Rajya Sabha for States?

7 / 100

Which one of the following will not come under the expression ‘State’ as defined under Article 12 of the Constitution of India?

8 / 100

In which case the ‘Constitution of the Family Welfare Committees by the District Legal Services Authorities’ was directed, which was subsequently modified by the Supreme Court?

9 / 100

Which of the following statement/statements is/are not correct?
1. The declaration of National Emergency on the ground of ‘Armed Rebellion’ was inserted by the Constitutional (42 Amendment) Act, 1976.
2. President shall not issue a proclamation under Clause (1) Article 352 unless the decision of the Union Cabinet (the Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers) is communicated to him in writing.
3. A resolution approving the proclamation of National Emergency must be passed by special majority.
4. A proclamation of Emergency once approved by the Parliament shall remain in force until the emergency ceases.
Select the correct answers:

10 / 100

Who can make laws on any matter in the State List for implementing the international treaties, agreements or conventions?

11 / 100

Which of the following does not find place in the Preamble of the Constitution of India?

12 / 100

The Chief Minister of a State of India is not eligible to vote in the Presidential election if

13 / 100

In which case the Supreme Court held that “Objectives in the Preamble of the Constitution is its basic structure and it cannot be amended under its Article 368”?

14 / 100

By which of the following Amendment Acts of the Constitution, Chapter of Fundamental Duties have been added as Chapter IVA in the Constitution?

15 / 100

Under Article 11 of the Constitution the Parliament passed the Citizenship Amendment Act, 2003 (assented in January 2004) which provides the overseas citizenship to the People of Indian Origin in

16 / 100

Under these,
A pre-constitution law inconsistent with a fundamental rights becomes void.
1. Only after commencement of the constitution
2. From the date of its enactment

17 / 100

The 11th Schedule of the Constitution is concerned with

18 / 100

Which one among the following of the writs would be issued to release a person from an illegal detention

19 / 100

The decision of the Supreme Court in M. C. Mehta v. Union of India, (1988) 1 SCC 471, concerned with Ganga water pollution, was described as “ultra activist” by:

20 / 100

Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the anti-defection provision of the Constitution?

21 / 100

Who has both original and appellate jurisdiction in both civil as well as criminal matters at district level?

22 / 100

Which of the following category of judges is not mentioned in the Constitution?

23 / 100

According to Clause (1) of Article 25 of the Indian Constitution, the freedom of religion is subject to the interest of

24 / 100

In which year Andhra Pradesh was created?

25 / 100

Which part of the Constitution defines the various categories of Indian citizens at the commencement of the Constitution?

26 / 100

The Governor is free to resign from his office by giving resignation, but he can be removed from the office

27 / 100

Under Indian Constitution, in performance of his duties. Attorney General for India, shall have right of audience

28 / 100

“Indian National Anthem is a reflection of the real India as a country-a confidence of many religious, races, communities and geographical entitles. It is a message of unity in diversity”
The above phrase of the Supreme Court was taken from which of the following judgment

29 / 100

The Constitution of India is federal in character because:

30 / 100

Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer:

List I
List II

a. M. Nagaraj v. Union of India
1. Case on National Security

b. Indira Sawhney v. Union of India
2. To provide reservations in promotions for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

c. Mohini Jain v. State of Karnataka
3. Application of creamy layer to O. B. C. quota

d. A. K. Roy v. Union of India
4. On capitation fees

31 / 100

Article 21A Right to Education mandates the State to provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine. Which of the following word (helping verb) has been used by the legislature to show the level of commitment in the opening sentence of Article 21-A?

32 / 100

Interpretative value of Preamble was discussed in:

33 / 100

The Constitution Drafting Committee constituted by the Constituent Assembly consisted of

34 / 100

Which constitutional provision provides that no bill or amendment for the purposes of imposing reasonable restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce or intercourse with or within a State as required in the public interest shall be introduced or moved in the Legislature of that State without the previous sanction of the President?

35 / 100

The Public Accounts Committee submits its report to the

36 / 100

Time gap between two sessions of Parliament can not exceed

37 / 100

The power of the President to consult the Supreme Court is under Article

38 / 100

Proclamation of financial emergency’ means proclamation made under

39 / 100

By which Constitutional amendment has Article 39A been inserted in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

40 / 100

By which amendment Article 16(4A)was added

41 / 100

Under which article of Indian Constitution, the attorney general has a right to take part and speak in the parliamentary Proceedings?

42 / 100

After this case, Article 21 now protects the right of life and personal liberty of Citizens not only from executive action but also from legislative action. The case is

43 / 100

Fair trial in a criminal case is guaranteed in the Constitution of India by Article

44 / 100

The Vice-President of India may be removed from his office by:

45 / 100

The Preamble of the Constitution of India envisages that

46 / 100

In death of the Governor who takes over till next Governor is appointed?

47 / 100

The Council of state in India has how many elected members

48 / 100

Under Article 356 a proclamation to remain operative must be approved within 2 months by

49 / 100

A writ of mandamus will not lie against the

50 / 100

President has no say in the appointment of

51 / 100

Which of the following have been held to be permissible restrictions under Articles 25 and 26 by the Supreme Court?
1. Vesting of religious activities of Jagannath Temple by an Act in a committee.
2. Permitting non-Brahmins to perform the rites and rituals in a temple.
3. Denying the Muslims the right to run the Aligarh Muslim University
4. Imposing ban on loudspeakers for Azan and Kirtans.
Select the correct answer:

52 / 100

Which Articles of Indian Constitution discuss the financial relations between the Centre and the States

53 / 100

In a parliamentary democracy-

54 / 100

On retirement a member of State Public Service Commission can hold no office under State Government or Union Government except that of

55 / 100

Members of Legislative Bodies enjoys the privilege of examination from arrest or detention in prison:

56 / 100

Dissolution of the House means that the life of the House has ended and a fresh House has to be constituted.
Which one of the following House in India cannot be dissolved?

57 / 100

If the Governor wishes to relinquish the office before the expiry of his term, he may address his resignation to

58 / 100

Which one of the following authorities is competent to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court of India?

59 / 100

What is the correct chronological order in which the following provisions were incorporated into the Constitution of India through amendments?
1. Right to education as fundamental right
2. Certificate for appeal to Supreme Court
3. Nagar Palika Act
4. Free Legal Aid
Select the correct answer:

60 / 100

The appointment of Comptroller and Auditor-General of India under Article 148 is made by the:

61 / 100

Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President?

62 / 100

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:

List I
List II

a. Vinect Narain v. Union of India
1. Curative petition

b. Kanu Sanyal v. D. M., Darjeeling
2. Habeas Corpus

c. Roopa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra
3. Continuing Mandamus

d. L. Chandra Kumar Case
4. Administrative Tribunal

63 / 100

The Directive Principles of State Policy are-

64 / 100

The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a/an:

65 / 100

Which of the following is not an essential qualification for appointment as a Governor?

66 / 100

On a subject covered by an entry in List I of the VII Schedule of the Constitution, the Union Executive:

67 / 100

Which of the following states has the largest percentage of reserved parliamentary seats

68 / 100

. . . . . . . . Amendment Act, 1976 increased the age of retirement of a member of a State Public Service Commission from sixty years to sixty-two years, thus bought the retirement age of a PSC member on par with that of a High Court Judge.

69 / 100

Which of the following is not a function of the UPSC and State Public Service Commissions?
1. Advising the appropriate governments on matters relating to methods of recruitment to civil services and for civil posts.
2. Consultation in creation of All India Services.
3. Consultation on disciplinary matters affecting a person serving the Government of India or of a person serving the Government of a State in a civil capacity.
Select the correct answer:

70 / 100

Under Article 16, the words ‘any employment or office’ applies

71 / 100

Which provision of the Constitution imposes a duty on the Union to ensure that the Government of every State is carrying on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution?

72 / 100

Making of class within class is violative of Article-14 of Indian Constitution, was held in which of the case?

73 / 100

The maximum period for President Rule under Article 356 is:

74 / 100

Communalism is opposed to

75 / 100

“Smoking in public place amount to violation of Article-21” was held in the following case :

76 / 100

Which of the following does not follow from the law declared in the National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India (2013) 5 SCC 438, in respect of rights of the members of the transgender community?

77 / 100

Article 6 enshrines the provision conferring Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to India from Pakistan. Which one of the following provision is incorrect

78 / 100

In which of the following case the Supreme Court held that Article 16(4A) providing for reservation in promotions is an enabling provision?

79 / 100

What all crimes can NIA investigate?

80 / 100

Under Article . . . . . . . . of the Constitution of India the Supreme Court of India may make rules. Fill in the blanks hom the following:

81 / 100

Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?
1. It shall be the duty of every citizen to respect the country and abide by the constitution.
2. All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
3. The state shall in particular, take steps for preserving and improving the breeds, and prohibiting the slaughter of cows and calves and other milch and draught cattle.
4. No law here after enacted by the legislature of Jammu and Kashmir shall be void on the ground that it is inconsistent with any rights conferred on other citizens of India by any provision of Part III of the Constitution.

82 / 100

The Indian Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on

83 / 100

Which of the following Articles describe about the person voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign state not to be citizens

84 / 100

In which one of the following cases it has been held that section 9 of Civil Procedure Code, 1973, which enables a civil court to try all suits of civil nature, impliedly confers jurisdiction to apply the law of torts as principles of justice, equity and good conscience?

85 / 100

Which out of the following does not constitute basic structure of the Constitution?

86 / 100

The committee which examine the ‘extravagance’ of the government

87 / 100

Assertion (A): Directive Principles of State Policy are relevant for determining the reasonableness of restrictions under Article 19(2).
Reason (R): Directive Principles of State Policy have been declared superior to the Fundamental Rights.

88 / 100

Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that ‘It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance’?

89 / 100

Parliament in exercise of power under Article 368 makes a law which does away with the ‘fundamental right conferred under Article 15 of the Constitution of India. The Executive seeks to defend the challenge instituted in court based on clause (d) of Article 368, which prohibits such action being questioned in court on any ground. Can the challenge in Court be sustained?

90 / 100

In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court of India held that the Right to Privacy is a part of Right to Life under Article 21 of the Constitution of India?

91 / 100

Fundamental duties were added in the constitution of India on the recommendation of

92 / 100

Which is the qualification of a judicial member of Lokpal?

93 / 100

Vice President may be removed from his post by resolution of members of council of state?

94 / 100

Election dispute can be resolved only through election petition to the

95 / 100

Match List I (Amendment) with List II (Nature of Amendment) and select the correct answer:

List I (Amendment)
List II (Nature of Amendment)

a. 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
1. Disqualification of defection

b. 52nd Amendment Act, 1985
2. It included ‘Sindhi’ language in Schedule VIII

c. 62nd Amendment Act, 1989
3. This Amendment inserted three new words ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’ and ‘Integrity’ in the Preamble

d. 21st Amendment Act, 1966
4. This Amendment has extended the reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the House of the People and State Legislative

96 / 100

In consequence of the death or incapacity of the President, vice President can become the President for

97 / 100

The short title of our Constitultion is the ‘Constitution of India’. Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution it has been mentioned?”

98 / 100

The Union executive has no power to issue directions to state executive under . . . . . . . . of the Constitution of India.

99 / 100

Constitution of India: The state shall provide free and compulsory education to all children at the age of six to fourteen years enshrined in Article?

100 / 100

Consider the following statements:
The fundamental duties provided in the constitution are:
1. To protect the sovereignty unity and integrity of India
2. To safeguard private property
3. To protect and improve the natural environment including forests lakes, river and wild life of these statements:

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