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Constitution of India

Practice Test 35

1 / 100

How many judges constituted the Bench in the case of Supreme Court Advocates on Record Assn. v. Union of India, (2016) 5 SCC 1 in which the Constitution (Ninety Ninth Amendment). Act, 2014, was declared unconstitutional?

2 / 100

An arrestee’s right to consult and be defended by a lawyer flows from which Article of the Constitution of India?

3 / 100

Consider the following statements :
The High Court has jurisdiction to:
1. Punish for its, contempt.
2. Tender advice on the legal question referred to it by the Governor of the State.
3. Tender advice on a legal question referred to it by the Governor of the State.
4. Issue certain writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights or for other purposes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

4 / 100

Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer:
Assertion (A): The Council of Ministers holds office during the pleasure of the President of India.
Reason (R): The President of India can dismiss the Ministers at his discretion.

5 / 100

In Part IVA of the Constitution, every Indian citizen has how many fundamental duties:

6 / 100

Which of the following is correct regarding Union Public Service Commission?
1. It is the ‘watch-dog of merit system’ in India
2. Conducts recruitment to the all India services and Central services-group A and group B.
3. Involved in classification of services, pay and service conditions, cadre management and training.
Select the correct option:

7 / 100

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. No bill can be introduced in the legislature of a state for imposing reasonable restrictions on the freedom of trade without previous sanction of the President.
2. No bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament for altering the name of a state without the name of a state without the recommendation of the President and the concurrence of the state legislature concerned.
Select the correct answer:

8 / 100

Who can dissolve Rajya Sabha?

9 / 100

A member of state legislature belonging to a political party shall be disqualified to continue as a member-

10 / 100

List II (Union List) in Seventh Schedule contain how many items?

11 / 100

In which case it has been held that under Article 141 “reliance placed on a decision without looking into factual background of case before then it is clearly impermissible.”

12 / 100

Which of the following statements, regarding the nature and character of protection provided by Article 31B of the Constitution of India, to the laws added to the IX Schedule, is incorrect?

13 / 100

The final decision on questions of disqualifications of members of state assembly shall be made by:

14 / 100

Consider the following statements: The High Court has jurisdiction to:
1. Punish for its contempt.
2. Tender advice on the legal question referred to it by the Governor of the State.
3. Tender advice on a legal question referred to it by the Governor of the state.
4. Issue certain writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights or for other purposes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

15 / 100

In which way the Fundamental Rights can be suspended.
1. They can never be suspended.
2. If the President Orders it in the time of National Emergency.
3. If the Parliament passes a law by two-thirds majority.
4. If the Supreme Court orders it.

16 / 100

The obligation of the state to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people means a social order in which:

17 / 100

Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer:
Assertion (A): Judicial review of administrative actions under Articles 32 and 226 is part of the basic structure of Indian Constitution.
Reason (R): It was held to be so by the Supreme Court in L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India.

18 / 100

The President shall have the power under Article 72 of the Constitution of India to commute the sentence of any person where:

19 / 100

The provision for having a Finance Commission to sort out the revenuesharing arrangement between states and the Centre is part of the Constitution under which among the following articles?

20 / 100

Under which Article, ‘The Directive for development of the Hindi Language’

21 / 100

Provision for Financial emergency are laid down in Article . . . . . . . of the Constitution of India.

22 / 100

What do you mean by preamble?

23 / 100

Backward and ‘More Backward’ classification is not bad under article 14 was held by Supreme Court in which of the following case?

24 / 100

Which of the following is the main source of the British Constitution?

25 / 100

In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that harmony and balance in fundamental rights and directive principles is the basic feature of Indian Constitution

26 / 100

Give the correct response to

27 / 100

Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to form new States, change in the area of the present States and change in the territories and name of the States?

28 / 100

“Preamble of our” Constitution is of extreme importance and the Constitution should be read and interpreted in the light of the grand and noble vision expressed in the Preamble.”-Justice Sikri expressed the above opinion in the case of:

29 / 100

Doctrine of Basic structure was laid down in

30 / 100

Resolution of impeach the President can be introduced

31 / 100

The fundamental right guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a) does not include-

32 / 100

What among the following is not a power or function of the Speaker of Lok Sabha?

33 / 100

Why is Indian Constitution at times referred to as federal in character

34 / 100

Which court has jurisdiction to decide a dispute between Central Government and a State Government?

35 / 100

Who is authorised to grant in its discretion special leave to appeal from any judgement in any matter passed by any court or tribunal in the country?

36 / 100

In which case Supreme Court enunciated the Doctrine of Basic Structure

37 / 100

The basic structure doctrine with respect to the Constitution of India:

38 / 100

The Right to move the Supreme Court of India for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights is guaranteed under

39 / 100

Selvi v. State of Kamataka (2010) is the case related with:

40 / 100

Consider the following statements:
A member of the Union Public Service Commission:
1. Is appointed by the President of India
2. Is ineligible for re-appointment to that office.
3. Holds office for a period of 6 years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. Of the above Statements:

41 / 100

Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct answer:
Assertion (A): Proclamation of emergency can be issued by the President of India if there is an imminent danger of war or external aggression or internal disturbance and armed rebellion.
Reason (R): The President of India can suspend the enforcement of some fundamental rights during the period of emergency.

42 / 100

Which of the following are fundamental duties of Indian citizens as introduced by 42nd Amendment Act, 1936
1. To cherish and follow the noble ideals
2. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
3. To value and pursue the rich heritage of our culture
4. To develop the spirit of justice, equality and liberty

43 / 100

The Supreme Court was established in

44 / 100

The Indian Constitution provides for the

45 / 100

Article 39A of the Indian Constitution relates to

46 / 100

A Law made by the legislature of the State with respect to one of the matters in the Concurrent list containing any provision repugnant to the provisions of an earlier law made by parliament shall prevail in that State, if

47 / 100

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:

List I (Judicial Principles)
List II (Decisions)

a. Freedom of press
1. Kedarnath Bajoria v. State of W. B.

b. Minority rights
2. Bennet Coleman v. Union of India

c. Just, fair and Reasonable
3. Ajij Basha v. Union of India

d. Special courts
4. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

48 / 100

The members of UPSC hold the office

49 / 100

Provisions related to the municipalities are in Part . . . . . . . . of the Constitution:

50 / 100

The Objective Resolution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly in

51 / 100

Temporary provisions with respect to the State of Jammu and Kashmir provides under

52 / 100

Supreme Court decision in Srilekha Vidyarthi v. State of Uttar Pradesh is based on

53 / 100

The total number of languages in the 8th Schedule to Constitution of India increased to 22 by the:

54 / 100

Point out the incorrect pair-

55 / 100

Which of the following Articles was inserted by the Constitution (Ninety-Eighth Amendment) Act, 2012?

56 / 100

Chairman and other members of the Union and State Public Service Commissions are appointed by

57 / 100

A member of the Council of Ministers

58 / 100

Which one of the following is not correct in respect of Articles 358 and 359 of the Constitution of India?

59 / 100

A person who is not qualified to be appointed to a public post is appointed to occupy the said post. This is challenged before the High Court invoking the Writ Jurisdiction.
Which of the following are the most appropriate Writs to be invoked.

60 / 100

The Union Legislature in India is empowered

61 / 100

Right of equality of opportunity in the matters of public employment is under

62 / 100

The executive power of the State is vested in:

63 / 100

Who among the following was appointed as the Special Prosecutor in 2G Case replacing U. U. Lalit?

64 / 100

Which committee recommended for the establishment of a State Finance Commission for the allocation of finances to the Panchayats?

65 / 100

Which of the following are true about the Attorney-General of India?
1. He is not a member of the Cabinet
2. He has a right to speak in the Houses of the Parliament
3. He has the right to vote in the Parliament
4. He must have the same qualifications as those required to be a judge of the Supreme Court

66 / 100

Amendment to the Constitution of India may be introduced in

67 / 100

The writ of Habeas corpus means

68 / 100

The Constitution of India vests residuary legislative powers and executive functions in:

69 / 100

A majority of not less than two-third of the membership of the House concerned is not necessary for removal of which of the following authority?

70 / 100

Vote-on-account is meant for

71 / 100

The Supreme Court of India in the exercise of its jurisdiction may make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any case, such power is conferred by :

72 / 100

In which of the following cases the traditional concept of equity was not accepted by the Supreme Court and a new concept of equity was adopted by the Supreme Court?

73 / 100

The Chairman of the Legislative Council is:

74 / 100

Puisne Judge of a Supreme Court means

75 / 100

Will the State be successful in its defence that the action is taken under the interest of the general public

76 / 100

“The Constitution should give India Domination Status”, was a proposal in?

77 / 100

Generally, the Governor belongs to:

78 / 100

Article 258A of the Constitution provides that the Governor of a State may, with the consent of the Government of India, entrust any State functions to the Central Government or its officer. This Article was inserted in the Constitution by which one of the following Amendment?

79 / 100

In which one of the following cases, there can be no joint sitting of Parliament?

80 / 100

The principle of ‘Collective Responsibility’ has been incorporated in Article-

81 / 100

Based on the federal system the Guardian of Indian Constitution is

82 / 100

The Supreme Court struck down a part of the Preventive Detention Act in the

83 / 100

Who was the Chairman of “National Commission to review the working of the Constitution”?

84 / 100

The case of I. R. Coelho is related to:

85 / 100

Article 142 of the Constitution

86 / 100

Which of the following Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended during emergency?

87 / 100

Right of all citizens to move freely throughout the territory of India:

88 / 100

Which of the following is not considered ‘irrational’, basing upon the Wednesburg principles laid down in Associated Provincial Picture House Ltd. vs. Wednesburg Corporation, 1948 (KB)?

89 / 100

Can a juristic person acquire citizenship under Part-II of the Constitution of India?

90 / 100

A change in distribution of powers between the Centre and the States can be done by

91 / 100

In India right to education is a

92 / 100

Match List-I with List-Il and select and correct answer:

List I (Subject Matter)
List II (Case)

a. Reservation in unaided Private colleges
1. E. V. Chinnaiah v. State of Andhra Pradesh

b. 27% reservation for OBCs in government services
2. I. R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu

c. Constitutional validity of Laws included in the Ninth Schedule
3. P. A. Inamdar v. State of Maharashtra

4. Indra Sawhney v. Union of India

93 / 100

Indra Sawhney v. Union of India is popularly known as

94 / 100

Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) is not financially, functionally or administratively dominated by Government nor it is under control of Government, therefore, not a State; was held by the Supreme Court of India in

95 / 100

A Wrongful assumption of a public office can be corrected by a writ of:

96 / 100

The binding force behind the Directive Principles of State Policy is

97 / 100

Which provision of Constitution recognizes right of accused to remain silent?

98 / 100

Assertion: Laws covered under Article 39(b) and (c) have been given protective shield against some of the fundamental rights.
Reason (R): The Directive Principles are also regarded relevant for considering what are reasonable restriction under Article 19.

99 / 100

Consider the following statements regarding Directive Principles of State Policy:
1. They are not enforceable in a Court of Law.
2. Their enforcement may override fundamental rights.
3. They are fundamental in the governance of the State.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

100 / 100

Consider the following statements:
Parliament may make law on a subject enumerated in state list only if the:
1. President deems it proper that such law is necessary for all the stated in India
2. Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 is in operation
3. Lok Sabha passed a resolution 213rd majority of list total membership
4. Governor of the state request the President for such legislation
Of these statements:

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