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Constitution of India

Practice Test 8

1 / 100

In which year the second Backward Classes Commission was appointed with B. P. Mandal as chairman?

2 / 100

Which one of the following has been considered as Authority of Power

3 / 100

Which one of the following statements are true with regard to the Fundamental Right of the minorities in educational matters?
1. The minority has only the right to administer the educational institutions.
2. The minority has the right to establish and administer educational institutions.
3. The right is absolute and not subject to any restriction.
4. Reasonable restrictions may be imposed to promote efficiency and prevent maladministration.
Select the correct answer:

4 / 100

To remove the president from the post impeachment can be brought on the ground of

5 / 100

The three types of Justice referred to in the Preamble of the Constitution are

6 / 100

Which Article of the Constitution deals with the definition of money bills?

7 / 100

A state may by law impose reasonable restrictions on freedom of trade commerce and intercourse with or within that state in public interest. But such law?

8 / 100

What in provision Article 20(2)?

9 / 100

Consider the following statements:
The Governor of a State
1. Is the Constitutional Head of the State.
2. Always acts as an agent of the Centre.
3. Is an integral part of the State Legislature
Which of the statements given above are correct?

10 / 100

Under which of the following Articles laws inconsistent or abridging fundamental rights are declared void?

11 / 100

The Preamble to the Constitution of India:

12 / 100

On which of the following basis the seats are reserved for the SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assemblies?

13 / 100

Portfolios are allocated to Ministers by:

14 / 100

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:

List I (Judicial Principle)
List II (Decision)

a. Preamble
1. State of Orissa v. Miss Binapani Devi

b. Natural Justice
2. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

c. Right to Life
3. Mohini Jain v. State of Karnataka

d. Right to Education
4. Rudal Shah v. State of Bihar

5. Bhim Singh v. State of J & K

15 / 100

Which out of the following is not a right covered by Art. 21 of the Constitution?

16 / 100

The Right to education is provided in Article . . . . . . . . of the Constitution of India.

17 / 100

The Political Sovereignty lies with the-

18 / 100

The Supreme Court has power under Article 32 to issue directions or orders or writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari

19 / 100

The prohibition against prosecution and punishment for the same offence more than once:

20 / 100

Which of the following is not a special procedure or feature in respect of a Money Bill?

21 / 100

Who can seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court of India?

22 / 100

The President can obtain opinion of the Supreme Court in which of the following cases?

23 / 100

Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from offices by

24 / 100

Who allocates and reshuffles the portfolios among ministers of state legislative assembly?

25 / 100

The 38th Amendment Act of 1975 made the declaration of emergency by whom non-justiciable?

26 / 100

Which of the pairs is correctly matched

27 / 100

What is the outer limit of representatives of the States and of the UTs in the Council of States?

28 / 100

To determine whether a practice is protected by Article 25(1) of the Constitution of India, the party seeking such protection has to establish that:

29 / 100

The Prime Minister is responsible to the

30 / 100

To review the financial position of which one among the following, the Governor of a State has power to constitute a Finance Commission?

31 / 100

Which one of the following statements is correct?
In T. M. A. Pai Foundation v. State of Karnataka, Unnikrishan v. State of Andhra Pradesh was

32 / 100

Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is available to both the citizen and alliens?

33 / 100

India has borrowed the scheme of federation i.e. ‘Union of States’ from which country?

34 / 100

Match the items of List I with the items of List II and choose the correct answer:

List I
List II

a. Privilege
1. Gives content to the claim of a person

b. Duty
2. Freedom from claim of another

c. Power
3. Have no correlative claim according to Austin

d. Absolute Duty
4. Ability of a person to change legal relations

35 / 100

Who administers oath to the Governor of a State?

36 / 100

Which of the following can claim Article 19 of Constitution?

37 / 100

Salaries of the judgesn of the Supreme Court are drawn from the

38 / 100

Which Article of the Constitution of India is for “Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases”?

39 / 100

Retirement age of Supreme Court Judges is

40 / 100

Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give correct answer:
Assertion (A): A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament if he holds any office of profit under the Government.
Reason (R): If ‘pecuniary gain’ is receivable in connection with the office. Then it shall not become an office of profit, irrespective of whether such gains are actually promised or not.

41 / 100

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:

List I
List II

a. Article 50
1. Impeachment of the President

b. Article 143
2. Separation between judiciary and Executive

c. Article 61
3. Functions of Public Service Commission

d. Article 320
4. Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court

42 / 100

Parliament of India can make use of the Residuary powers for the purpose of making law:

43 / 100

The attorney general may take part in parliamentary proceedings. Whether he enjoys the Parliamentary privileges of member of parliament?

44 / 100

Fundamental Duties of citizens

45 / 100

The State of J & K enjoy a special status under the Article 370 of the Constitution. But under Article 370(3), the President may declare that Article 370 shall cease to be operative. This power is subject to:
1. Public notification
2. Recommendation of Parliament
3. Advice of the Union Council of Ministers
4. Recommendations of the constituent Assembly of J & K

46 / 100

Who determines the salary, allowances and other service conditions of the Chief Information Commissioner and an Information Commissioner?

47 / 100

On Whom does the Constitution confer special responsibility for the enforcement of fundamental rights?

48 / 100

Which decision of the Apex Court enunciated the doctrine of ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution of India?

49 / 100

The question below consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Assertion’ (A) and another as ‘Reason’ (R). Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers:
Assertion (A): It is the legal and constitutional duty of the State to provide legal aid to poor.
Reason (R): No one should be denied justice by reason of his poverty.

50 / 100

Rule regarding construction of a welfare statute is that it should be

51 / 100

The Constitution of India as of today has

52 / 100

The Regulating Act empowered the British Crown to establish a Supreme Court at Calcutta by issuing a charter in 1774. It also led

53 / 100

The word ‘Socialist in Preamble, aims to

54 / 100

Which one of the following statements is correct?
The power of judicial review means the power of the Supreme Court to:

55 / 100

Position of President of India is like

56 / 100

In which one of the following cases Supreme Court had held that “States” do not enjoy sovereignty under the Indian Constitution as it does not provide for a federal character in the strict sense?

57 / 100

In Preamble of the Constitution, the People of India have resolved to constitute India into

58 / 100

Which one of the following is not a Money Bill?

59 / 100

The President has no power to grant pardon under Article 72 of the Constitution of India where the sentence:

60 / 100

Which one is not correctly matched

61 / 100

In the event of the death or resignation of President, Vice-President discharges the duties of the office of President:

62 / 100

Which of the following Article of the Constitution uses the term ‘martial law’?

63 / 100

The constitutional position of President of India is most closely similar to . . . . . . . .

64 / 100

In the third Amendment, Entry 33 of the Concurrent List had been enlarged to include four classes of essential commodities. Which of the following is not one of them?

65 / 100

The Governor of a State shall have powers to grant pardon to any person convicted of any offence

66 / 100

Which Amendment Act of the Constitution inter alia provided for the Constitution of an “Administrative Tribunals’ to deal with the disputes and grievances relating to public services.

67 / 100

Which one of the following statements is correct?
When Emergency is in operation, the President of India may declare that

68 / 100

The validity of the Constitution 24th Amendment Act, was challenged in

69 / 100

Article 23 of the Constitution does not prohibit

70 / 100

Provision of the Indian Constitution relating to the formation of new States can be amended by

71 / 100

The Centre can legislate on the subjects of State List

72 / 100

The question whether the Preamble of the Constitution of India can be amended under the Article 368 of the Constitution of India was raised for the first time before Supreme Court in which one of the following cases?

73 / 100

Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer
Assertion (A): The Constitution of India under Article 40 states that the State shall take steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self government.
Reason (R): This directive gives an assurance that every village where maximum people live, has to be made an autonomous republic, self-sufficient self-sustaining and capable of managing its own affairs.

74 / 100

Article 29 of the Constitution protects the rights of:

75 / 100

Which of the following Amendment was mostly based on the proposals made by ‘Swaran Singh Committee’?

76 / 100

In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that “Basic structure” of the Constitution of India cannot be amended by exercising the power of amendment under Article 368 . . . . . . . .

77 / 100

Which one of the following Statutes has no preamble?

78 / 100

Point out the incorrect pair

79 / 100

The duration of proclamation of Financial Emergency is

80 / 100

Which one of the following statements is correct

81 / 100

Article 19(1) includes

82 / 100

The proximity test was held in the case of

83 / 100

Under the Constitution of India. The President-

84 / 100

The maximum period of duration under Article 356 clause (4) of the Constitution may be up to

85 / 100

How many members of the Rajya Sabha retire after every two years?

86 / 100

Doctrine of Colorable legislation means

87 / 100

In which case ‘Secularism’ was recognized as basic feature of the Constitution of India?

88 / 100

India, that is Bharat, shall be

89 / 100

That “no person accused of an offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself” is a/an:

90 / 100

Or the first time Indian Legislature was made “Bi-cameral” under:

91 / 100

Which of the followingis not a feature of the Directive Principles of State Policy?

92 / 100

The Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission is appointed by

93 / 100

Match List I with List Il and select the correct answer:

List I (Writ)
List II (Matter in dispute)

a. Habeas Corpus
1. Appointment of a university teacher

b. Mandamus
2. Custody of a child by parents

c. Quo Warranto
3. Violation of natural justice

d. Certiorari
4. Refund of money illegally collected of money illegally collected as cess by taxing authority

94 / 100

Finance Commission consists of

95 / 100

Appointment of receiver

96 / 100

How long can a person continue to be a Minister without being a member of either house of Parliament?

97 / 100

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with respect to Twenty-sixth Amendment Act, 1971?

98 / 100

Article 14 lays down that “State shall not deny to any person equality before law and equal protection of laws.” The expression ‘any person’ means

99 / 100

In which of the following case the Supreme Court held that-“While guaranteeing the fundamental right to the freedom of religion, Explanation II to Article 25(2)(b) made it clear that reference to Hindus shall be construed as including a reference to persons professing the Sikh, Jain or Buddhist religion, and the reference to Hindu religious Institutions shall be construed accordingly”?

100 / 100

The Parliament of the Union consists of:

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